A 3-week-old male has 5 days of forceful, projectile, non-bilious vomiting after every feeding. Exam reveals an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant. Which metabolic abnormality is MOST expected?
A. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
B. Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis ✔
C. Hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
D. Normal electrolytes
Correct: B — Pyloric stenosis. Repeated loss of HCl and K+ from gastric contents causes hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. Classic presentation: non-bilious projectile vomiting at 3–6 weeks, olive-shaped mass. Confirm with ultrasound; treat with pyloromyotomy.
Question 2 of 20
A 2-year-old has a soft, reducible 1.2 cm umbilical swelling that enlarges with crying. Appropriate management?
A. Emergent surgical referral
B. Apply tape or a coin to hasten closure
C. Observe — most close spontaneously by age 4–5 ✔
D. Order ultrasound to rule out incarceration
Correct: C. Umbilical hernias <2 cm in children typically close by age 4–5. Watchful waiting is appropriate. Taping/coins are NOT recommended. Refer if still open after age 5, defect >2 cm, or incarceration occurs.
Question 3 of 20
A 5-week-old has bilious vomiting and a "double bubble" sign on X-ray. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Pyloric stenosis
B. Hirschsprung disease
C. Duodenal atresia ✔
D. Intussusception
Correct: C — Duodenal atresia. The "double bubble" (air in stomach + dilated duodenum) is pathognomonic. Associated with Down syndrome. Pyloric stenosis = non-bilious vomiting. Treat surgically.
Question 4 of 20
A 9-month-old has episodic severe abdominal pain with leg-drawing, pallor, and "currant jelly" stool. Best diagnosis and initial management?
A. Hirschsprung disease — rectal biopsy
B. Intussusception — air enema ✔
C. Volvulus — emergent laparotomy
D. Meckel diverticulum — Tc-99m scan
Correct: B — Intussusception. Most common abdominal emergency ages 6 months–3 years. Classic: colicky pain + currant-jelly stool + sausage-shaped mass. Ultrasound confirms (target sign). Air enema is diagnostic and therapeutic (80–90% success).
Question 5 of 20
A newborn fails to pass meconium within 48 hours. Rectal exam causes explosive release of stool. Gold standard for diagnosis?
A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Colonoscopy
C. Full-thickness rectal biopsy (absent ganglion cells) ✔
D. Sweat chloride test
Correct: C — Hirschsprung disease. Congenital absence of ganglion cells in the distal colon. Confirmed by rectal biopsy. Associated with Down syndrome. Treatment: surgical pull-through.
Ch 28 — Genitourinary
Question 6 of 20
A 3-year-old girl has her 2nd UTI (E. coli >100,000 CFU/mL). Most appropriate next step?
A. Treat and discharge
B. Start prophylactic TMP-SMX
C. VCUG to evaluate for vesicoureteral reflux ✔
D. Renal ultrasound alone is sufficient
Correct: C. Recurrent UTIs in young children warrant evaluation for vesicoureteral reflux (VUR). VCUG is the gold standard. VUR increases risk of renal scarring. AAP also recommends VCUG after the FIRST febrile UTI in children <2 years.
Question 7 of 20
A 5-year-old boy has sudden scrotal pain, nausea, elevated testis, horizontal lie, and absent cremasteric reflex. Immediate next step?
A. Order ultrasound and await results
B. Prescribe antibiotics for orchitis
C. Emergent urological referral — testicular torsion ✔
D. Manual detorsion in office, then reassess
Correct: C — Testicular torsion is a urological emergency. Salvage rate: 100% if repaired within 6 hours, <10% after 24 hours. Absent cremasteric reflex is the most reliable sign. Do NOT delay for imaging if clinical picture is clear. Treat with emergent surgical detorsion + bilateral orchiopexy.
Question 8 of 20
A 6-year-old has hematuria, periorbital edema, hypertension, and RBC casts on urinalysis, 2 weeks after strep throat. Diagnosis?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) ✔
C. IgA nephropathy
D. HSP nephritis
Correct: B — PSGN. Occurs 1–3 weeks post-pharyngitis (3–6 weeks post-impetigo). Hallmarks: hematuria, edema, HTN, RBC casts, low C3, elevated ASO titer. Most recover fully. No specific treatment (supportive).
Question 9 of 20
A 2-year-old boy has a large right-sided hydrocele that fluctuates in size throughout the day. Management?
A. Emergent referral — torsion risk
B. Needle aspiration in office
C. Surgical repair — communicating hydrocele does not resolve spontaneously ✔
D. Observe until age 5
Correct: C. A communicating hydrocele (patent processus vaginalis; size fluctuates with activity) does not resolve spontaneously and risks hernia. Refer for elective surgical repair. Never aspirate. Non-communicating hydroceles in infants <1 year may be observed.
Question 10 of 20
A 7-year-old boy has bilateral cryptorchidism. Recommended timing for orchiopexy?
A. Wait until puberty
B. hCG therapy preferred over surgery
C. Surgical orchiopexy by 12–18 months ✔
D. Observe until age 4
Correct: C. Orchiopexy by 12–18 months preserves fertility and reduces malignancy risk (seminoma). Most descent occurs by 3–6 months of age. This child is already past the window — urgent referral to urology is warranted.
Ch 29 — Dysmenorrhea & Amenorrhea
Question 11 of 20
A 16-year-old has painful periods since menarche. Pelvic exam is normal. First-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea?
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. NSAIDs (ibuprofen or naproxen), started 1–2 days before menses ✔
C. Progestin-only pill
D. Levonorgestrel IUD
Correct: B. NSAIDs are first-line — they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis (COX inhibition), reducing uterine contractions. Start 1–2 days before menses for best effect. Combined OCPs are second-line if NSAIDs are inadequate.
Question 12 of 20
A 17-year-old distance runner has no menses for 6 months, low BMI, and stress fractures. Labs: low estrogen, low LH/FSH, normal prolactin. Primary cause?
A. PCOS
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypothalamic amenorrhea (functional — energy deficit) ✔
D. Premature ovarian insufficiency
Correct: C — Female Athlete Triad: energy deficiency + menstrual dysfunction + low bone density. Suppressed GnRH pulsatility leads to low LH/FSH and estrogen. Manage: increase caloric intake, reduce exercise, calcium/vitamin D for bone protection.
Question 13 of 20
A 15-year-old with normal breast development (Tanner 4), absent pubic hair, absent uterus, and 46,XY karyotype. Diagnosis?
A. Turner syndrome (45,XO)
B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS) ✔
D. MRKH syndrome
Correct: C — CAIS. 46,XY + androgen receptor mutation: normal breasts (estrogen from testes), absent pubic/axillary hair, absent uterus/cervix. Intra-abdominal testes must be removed post-puberty (malignancy risk). MRKH has 46,XX with absent uterus but normal pubic hair.
Question 14 of 20
A 14-year-old has cyclic pelvic pain, no visible menses, and a bulging blue membrane at the introitus. Diagnosis?
A. Labial adhesions
B. Vaginal agenesis
C. Imperforate hymen with hematocolpos ✔
D. Transverse vaginal septum
Correct: C — Imperforate hymen. Menses accumulate behind the hymen (hematocolpos), presenting as a bulging blue/purple membrane at the introitus with cyclic pain. Uterus/ovaries are normal. Treatment: surgical hymenectomy. Do NOT aspirate in office.
Question 15 of 20
A 16-year-old with irregular periods, acne, hirsutism, obesity, elevated LH:FSH (>2:1), elevated testosterone, and polycystic ovaries. Best first-line management?
A. Metformin monotherapy
B. Combined OCP ✔
C. Clomiphene citrate
D. Spironolactone alone
Correct: B — PCOS in adolescents. Combined OCPs regulate cycles and reduce androgens. Metformin is added if insulin resistance/metabolic syndrome is present. Lifestyle modification is also essential. Clomiphene is for fertility only.
Question 16 of 20
Secondary dysmenorrhea differs from primary in that it:
A. Always responds to NSAIDs
B. Is caused by underlying pelvic pathology ✔
C. Only occurs at menarche
D. Involves prostaglandin excess without structural disease
Correct: B. Secondary dysmenorrhea has identifiable causes: endometriosis (most common in adolescents), fibroids, adenomyosis, PID. Progressive, develops after menarche. Partial NSAID response only; treat the underlying cause (often requires laparoscopy for diagnosis).
Question 17 of 20
A 13-year-old has had Tanner stage 3 breast development for 2 years but no menarche. Appropriate response?
A. Begin primary amenorrhea workup immediately
B. Reassure — menarche typically occurs 2–3 years after thelarche ✔
C. Check LH, FSH, prolactin now
D. Refer to gynecology
Correct: B. Normal menarche occurs 2–3 years after thelarche. Primary amenorrhea = no menses by age 15 WITH secondary sexual characteristics, OR no breast development AND no menses by age 13. This girl is still within normal range. Reassure and continue monitoring.
Question 18 of 20
Which serum lab BEST screens for PCOS in an adolescent with irregular periods and hirsutism?
A. Serum DHEA-S alone
B. Total testosterone and free testosterone ✔
C. Serum estradiol
D. 17-hydroxyprogesterone only
Correct: B. Total and free testosterone are the key labs for hyperandrogenism in PCOS. Also check LH:FSH ratio, fasting glucose, lipids, and HbA1c for metabolic syndrome screening. 17-OHP rules out congenital adrenal hyperplasia (must be in differential).
Question 19 of 20
A 14-year-old girl with Turner syndrome (45,X) will MOST likely require which long-term management?
A. No medical therapy — monitor annually
B. Estrogen replacement therapy for pubertal induction and bone health ✔
C. Testosterone therapy to induce puberty
D. Combined OCP started at menarche
Correct: B — Turner syndrome (45,X). Features: short stature, webbed neck, shield chest, primary amenorrhea, ovarian dysgenesis. GH therapy in childhood for height; estrogen replacement for pubertal induction and bone health (usually started at 11–13 years). Cardiac and renal anomalies must also be monitored.
Question 20 of 20
A 15-year-old with anorexia nervosa has not had a period in 8 months. BMI is 15.5. Most important first step?
A. Start OCP to protect bone density
B. Order pelvic ultrasound
C. Weight restoration and nutritional rehabilitation ✔
D. Check FSH and LH, then start HRT
Correct: C. Hypothalamic amenorrhea from energy deficiency (anorexia) requires treating the root cause — weight restoration. OCPs do NOT adequately protect bone in this setting (no substitute for estrogen from ovarian recovery). Refer to eating disorder specialist + nutritionist + psychiatry. Calcium and vitamin D are adjuncts.